Code of Ethics Social Science Homework Help
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Code of Ethics Social Science Homework Help
Ethics in Your Area of Study
Review a “Code of Ethics” document related to your area of study or vocation. Some examples are listed below. Consider a specific moral issue in your area of study or vocation and complete an essay according to the following directions.
“Code of Ethics” Examples:
American Psychological Association: http://www.apa.org/ethics/code/index.aspx
Association for Applied Sport Psychology: http://www.appliedsportpsych.org/About/Ethics
American Sociological Association: http://www.asanet.org/about/ethics.cfm
Academy of Criminal Justice Sciences: http://www.acjs.org/pubs/167_671_2922.cfm
American Association of Christian Counselors: http://www.aacc.net/about-us/code-of-ethics/
Ministerial Code of Ethics: http://www.cecconline.com/node/11
In 750-1,000 words, address the following:
Describe an ethical issue in your own area of study and provide a moral response.
Analyze how at least two moral theories might respond to the issue.
Explain how principles contained in a “Code of Ethics” for your discipline relate to the issue.
Utilize one of the models for making moral decisions discussed in Topic 6 to evaluate the issue.
Describe and support your rationale to the issue.
Utilize the GCU library to locate three to five academic resources in support of your content.
Prepare this assignment according to the APA guidelines found in the APA Style Guide, located in the Student Success Center. An abstract is not required.
This assignment uses a grading rubric. Instructors will be using the rubric to grade the assignment; therefore, students should review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the assignment criteria and expectations for successful completion of the assignment.
IET 101 Homework
We visited the Machine Lab this week in Hogue Hall. Your task is to research and find one “machine shop” here in the United States. Explain what they produce, where they are located, four products produced at the location, any technology used from design to machining, who their customers are, and any other information you feel is relevant.
Next, choose one of the many CNC software programs in the market today. Include how it works, the market it is sold to, what can be made using it, and other information you feel is relevant. Any pros/cons? Explain.
Finally, compare/contrast both a CNC lathe v. a normal lathe, and a CNC mill v. a normal mill. Provide two examples of parts/items created on each of the CNC lathe and normal lathe, the CNC mill and a normal mill. Are there any pros/cons of using one or both method? Explain. You may reference your class notes from lecture or internet resources.
Your final submission must be at least one-page double spaced. Please include all website or class note resources and one picture of each of the four machines on the same page, but on a separate page from the text. Be ready to submit on Tuesday 2/18, at the beginning of class. Please make sure to staple the pages of your submission. Have a good weekend.
The Biggest Disadvantage Of The Sole Proprietorship
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. The biggest disadvantage of the sole proprietorship is _________________. A. Total control
B. Double taxation C. Unlimited liability D. Limited access to capital
2. All of the following are advantages to organizing as a corporation except ____. A. Limited liability B. Double taxation C. Easy access to capital D. Easy to transfer ownership
3. From the perspective of access to capital, the best form of business organization is the _______. A. Corporation B. Partnership C. S Corporation
D. Sole proprietorship
4. From the perspective of ownership risk, the best form of business organization is the ______. A. Partnership B. Corporation C. S Corporation
D. Sole proprietorship
5. From the perspective of control, the best form of business organization is the __________. A. Partnership B. Corporation C. S Corporation
D. Sole proprietorship
6. The overall goal of the financial manager is to _________________. A. Minimize total costs B. Maximize net income C. Maximize earnings per share D. Maximize shareholder wealth
7. All of the following are an example of a fiduciary relationship except: A. a CEO manages the firm B. a bank employee manages deposits C. a financial advisor advises her clients D. the shareholder elects a board member
8. Which of the following statements is correct? A. Accountants are focused on what happened in the past. B. Financial managers are focused on what happened in the past. C. Financial managers double-check the accountant’s statements.
D. Both accountants and financial managers use total quality management systems to standardize data.
9. Maximizing owners’ equity value means carefully considering all of the following except _______. A. Which projects to invest in B. How best to increase the firm’s risk C. How to best bring additional funds into the firm
D. How best to return the profits from those projects to the owners over time
10. The most common type of business in the United States is the __________. A. Corporation B. Partnership C. Sole Proprietorship D. Hybrid organization such as a limited liability company
11. Attempting to maximizing shareholder value can lead to A. less pollution worldwide. B. minimizing bondholders’ wealth.
C. disasters, like the BP oil spill in the Gulf. D. a long-term outlook by a firm’s managers.
12. Which of the following statements is correct? A. Shareholder wealth maximization is achieved by minimizing costs or maximizing net profit. B. Shareholder wealth maximization may actually be beneficial for society in the long-run. C. Shareholder wealth maximization is achieved by maximizing market share. D. All of these statements are correct.
13. Unethical behavior by an organization may be from all of the following except; A. Agency costs between stockholders and the public B. poor personal ethics C. a low risk of getting caught D. A focus on long-term success.
14. An employee stock option plan is ________________. A. A plan that only partnerships can use to defer compensation to partners B. A perk usually only given to the board of directors as compensation C. A way to align the interests of employees with those of the owners D. None of these answers are correct
15. A legal duty between two parties where one party must act in the interest of the other party is known as a(n) ______________. A. Fiduciary B. Venture capitalist C. Restricted investor
D. Restricted capitalist
16. Restricted stock is: A. a special type of stock that is not transferable from the current holder to others until specific conditions are satisfied. B. a special type of stock that can be converted into corporate bonds after a specific amount of time has elapsed. C. a special type of stock that is a result of offering an employee stock ownership plan. D. None of these answers is correct.
17. All of the following are functions of the board of directors except ________. A. Hire the CEO B. Evaluate the CEO C. Provide reports to the auditors
D. Design compensation contracts for the CEO
18. The agency relationship in corporate finance refers to _______________________. A. when the corporate hires an advertising agency to market their new product/service B. when the shareholders hire a manager to run their company C. when the board of directors are elected to staggered terms D. when the board of directors oversee the CEO
19. The role of a credit analyst is to ______________. A. help firms access capital markets B. examine a firm’s financial strength for its debt holders C. monitor the business activities and report to the Securities Exchange Commission
D. follow a firm and conduct their own evaluations of the company’s business activities
20. All of the following are cash flows from financing activities except a(n) _________. A. Increase in accounts payable B. Stock Repurchases C. Paying dividends
D. Issuing stock
21. Cash flows available to pay the firm’s stockholders and debt holders after the firm has made the necessary working capital investments, fixed asset investments, and developed the necessary new products to sustain the firm’s ongoing operations is referred to as _________________. A. Net operating working capital B. Operating cash flow C. Free cash flow D. None of the above
22. All of the following are reasons that one should be cautious in interpreting financial statements except ____________. A. Firms can take steps to over- or understate earnings at various times. B. It is difficult to compare two firms that use different depreciation methods. C. Financial managers have quite a bit of latitude in using accounting rules to manage their reported earnings.
D. All of the above are reasons to be cautious in interpreting financial statements.
23. All of the following are cash flows from investing activities except a(n)___________. A. Increases in fixed assets B. Decreases in fixed assets C. Increases in marketable securities D. All of these items are cash flows from investing.
24. Which of the following is incorrect with respect to the Sarbanes-Oxley Act? A. The act requires public and private firms to ensure that their boards’ audit committees have considerable experience in applying generally accepted accounting principles for financial statements. B. The act requires that the firm’s senior management sign off on the financial statements certifying the statements as accurate and representative of the firm’s financial condition. C. This act was passed as result of extreme earnings management. D. All of these statements are correct.
25. A firm currently uses straight-line depreciation but is considering changing to MACRS. If the firm implements the change, which of the following will occur as a result of this change? A. The firm’s taxable income will increase. B. The firm will pay more in taxes. C. The firm’s EBIT will increase. D. None of the above.
26. The following are reasons that firms report ‘accounting’ income, except: A. accounting income is less erratic than cash flow B. Accounting income is a proxy for economic income. C. Accounting income reduces taxes that must be paid.
D. accounting income assumes the firm is a ‘going concern’.
27. The board of directors _____________. A. are hired by the CEO B. are elected by shareholders C. have unlimited liability since they oversee the day-to-day operations of the firm D. are employed by the Securities Exchange Commission to ensure its rules and regulations have been met
28. Which of the following is not a reason to report accounting profit in addition to cash flow? A. Accounting profit has less dramatic swings
B. Accounting profit reflects the idea of a ‘going concern
C. Accounting profit is a better proxy for economic profit D. Accounting profit takes into account the time value of money E. Accounting profit requires firm’s to record transactions with no cash flow
29. Is it possible for a firm to have positive net income and yet it has cash flow problems? A. Yes, this can occur when a firm is growing very rapidly. B. No, this is impossible since net income increases the firm’s cash. C. No, this is impossible since net income and cash are highly correlated.
D. Yes, this is possible if the firm window-dressed its financial statements.
30. Choose the phrase that makes this statement true: Ratio analysis A. can provide useful information on a firm’s past but not current position. B. can provide useful information on a firm’s current position and hint at future performance. C. can provide useful information on a firm’s current position but should never be used to forecast future performance. D. can provide useful information on a firm’s past and current position, but should never be used to forecast future performance.
31. Which of the following is not true about ratio analysis? A. Ratio analysis tells us what we need to do to make the firm better. B. Ratio analysis may be done across firms or through time. C. Ratio analysis may require us to consider interrelationships between ratios. D. Ratio analysis can be used to compare small and large firms.
32. Which of the following statements is correct? A. In general, a firm should strive for a high average payment period because it wants to pay for its purchases as quickly as possible. B. If a firm has a very high fixed asset turnover, it means that the firm may be nearing its maximum production capacity. C. An extremely low average collection period will maximize net income. D. All of the statements above are correct.
33. Common-size financial statements: A. Are obtained by dividing all income statement accounts by net sales and all balance sheet accounts by total assets. B. Allow for an easy comparison of balance sheets and income statements across firms in the industry. C. Provide quantitative clues about the direction that the firm is moving. D. All of the above.
34. The main two sources of the time value of money are:
A. Interest Rates and Risk, B. Inflation and Interest Rates, C. Risk and timing of Consumption.
D. Inflation and timing of Consumption, 35. Which of the following will decrease a present value? A. Increasing the future value. B. Decreasing the interest rate. C. Decreasing the number of periods. D. None of the above will decrease a present value.
36. Compounding is _______. A. the process of adding interest earned every period on both the original investment and the reinvested earnings B. the process of adding interest earned every period on both the original investment and additional deposits C. the process of using time-value equations to compute the number of years
D. the process of finding a present value
37. Which of the following will increase the present value of an annuity? A. The discount rate increases. B. The discount rate decreases. C. The number of periods the annuity is received increases. D. Statements B and C are correct.
38. When there is deflation (falling prices), with the real interest rate held constant, the present value of a future cash flow will A. be higher than when there is inflation. B. be lower than when there is inflation. C. be the same as when there is inflation. D. will be higher than the future value.
39. In theory, a perpetuity’s value will be infinite A. always, B. if the interest rate is zero,
C. if the interest rate is 100%, D. when payments go on forever.
40. You just bought a new home and have a 30-year mortgage with monthly payments. Which statement regarding your mortgage is correct? A. The dollar amount of interest expense you pay each year will remain the same each year. B. The dollar amount of principal paid increases each month. C. Your monthly payments will decrease over time. D. All of these statements are correct.
41. Which of the following statements is incorrect? A. A negative free cash flow means that the firm’s operations are not producing any cash flows for investors and always indicates that the firm is mismanaged. B. A positive free cash flow means that the firm’s operations are producing cash flows for investors—both bondholders and shareholders. C. Free cash flows are the cash flows available to investors after the firm has made the necessary investments in the firm’s operations. D. All of these statements are correct.
42. Which of the following statements is correct? A. The use of debt in the capital structure results in tax benefits to the firm. B. Debt is referred to as “financial leverage” because it magnifies returns to shareholders. C. Debt management ratios evaluate whether a firm is financing its assets with a reasonable amount of debt versus equity financing. D. All of these statements are correct.
43. Which of the following is NOT a factor that the sustainable growth rate is dependent upon? A. Current ratio
B. Profit margin C. Total asset turnover D. Average payment period
44. All the following are cautions managers and investors should consider when evaluating a firm using ratio analysis EXCEPT: A. The financial statement is historical and may not reflect future performance. B. Firms often window-dress their financial statements. C. Firms use different accounting procedures.
D. Many firms operate in only one industry.
45. Which of the following statements is correct? A. Performing cross-sectional analysis is easy since industries are usually clustered with firms that are identical. B. Time-series analysis is useless in assessing improvement or deterioration of ratios since the data is historical. C. Performing cross-sectional ratio analysis refers to assessing how a firm performed over a certain section of time. D. To interpret financial ratios, users should analyze the performance of the firm over time and the performance of the firm against one or more companies in the same industry.
46. A strong liquidity position means that ______________. A. the firm pays out a large portion of its net income in the form of dividends B. the firm is able to meet its short-term obligations C. the firm uses little debt in its capital structure D. the firm pays its creditors on-time
47. A firm has an average collection period of 13 days. The industry average ACP is 27 days. Which of the following statements is true given this information? A. The firm could probably increase its sales by relaxing its strict accounts receivable policy. B. The firm is maximizing its net income by minimizing its losses in accounts receivable. C. The firm has an excellent accounts receivable policy. D. Both statements b and c are correct.
48. Which of the following activities will increase a firm’s current ratio? A. Purchase inventory using cash. B. Accrued wages and taxes increase. C. Accounts receivable are paid in cash. D. Buy equipment with a short-term bank loan. E. None of these statements will increase a firm’s current ratio.
49. A firm may not want to strive to match industry average ratios when:
A. Firms in the industry are shifting into different directions.
B. Many of the competitor firms are foreign.
C. They are a leader in the industry.
D. All of the above.
50. Which of the following will increase a firm’s quick ratio assuming no other accounts change? A. An increase in inventory. B. A reduction in accounts payable. C. An increase in accounts receivable. D. All of these statements will increase a firm’s quick ratio.Code of Ethics Social Science Homework Help
RUBRIC
Excellent Quality
95-100%
Introduction 45-41 points
The background and significance of the problem and a clear statement of the research purpose is provided. The search history is mentioned.
Literature Support
91-84 points
The background and significance of the problem and a clear statement of the research purpose is provided. The search history is mentioned.
Methodology
58-53 points
Content is well-organized with headings for each slide and bulleted lists to group related material as needed. Use of font, color, graphics, effects, etc. to enhance readability and presentation content is excellent. Length requirements of 10 slides/pages or less is met.
Average Score
50-85%
40-38 points
More depth/detail for the background and significance is needed, or the research detail is not clear. No search history information is provided.
83-76 points
Review of relevant theoretical literature is evident, but there is little integration of studies into concepts related to problem. Review is partially focused and organized. Supporting and opposing research are included. Summary of information presented is included. Conclusion may not contain a biblical integration.
52-49 points
Content is somewhat organized, but no structure is apparent. The use of font, color, graphics, effects, etc. is occasionally detracting to the presentation content. Length requirements may not be met.
Poor Quality
0-45%
37-1 points
The background and/or significance are missing. No search history information is provided.
75-1 points
Review of relevant theoretical literature is evident, but there is no integration of studies into concepts related to problem. Review is partially focused and organized. Supporting and opposing research are not included in the summary of information presented. Conclusion does not contain a biblical integration.
48-1 points
There is no clear or logical organizational structure. No logical sequence is apparent. The use of font, color, graphics, effects etc. is often detracting to the presentation content. Length requirements may not be met
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